University of Minnesota, Twin Cities School of Statistics Stat 5601 Rweb
Suppose the pair differences Zi, have a distribution satisfying
pr(Zi > 0) = 0.01 |
pr(Zi = 0) = 0.90 |
pr(Zi < 0) = 0.09 |
In contrast, the rule used by the zero fudge assumes a quite different (hence wildly wrong) conditional sampling distribution of B given N, that is, Bin(N, 0.5).
For a concrete example suppose we observe B = 9 and N = 10. Then then the probability that is the P-value for the lower-tailed test
> pbinom(1, 10, 0.1) [1] 0.736099if we use the actual distribution assumed for this example and by
> pbinom(1, 10, 0.5) [1] 0.01074219under the zero fudge rule.
Quite a difference!